GACE Flying Club Ground Review

 

 

Date:_________________

 

Name:_______________________________ GACE #___________ Score:___________

 

Checked By:__________________________ CFI #______________Date:____________

 

Instructions: Fill in the blank, circle the appropriate letter or match the correct answers as indicated.  All questions assume that operations are conducted under 14 CFR Part 91.

 

All pilots should answer questions 1-25

Instrument pilots should answer all questions 

 

Materials needed: Current 14 CFR (Federal Aviation Regulations), current AIM, current Airport/Facility Directory, current New York Sectional Chart,  Flight Computer, current Low Altitude Enroute Chart (Instrument pilots only), current Instrument Approach Charts for New York and Massachusetts (Instrument pilots only)

 

1.       A flight review must be accomplished every 24 calendar months in order for a person to act as pilot in command.  Which of the following alternatives may substitute for a flight review?

 

1. Accomplishment of one or more phases of the FAA Pilot Proficiency (“Wings”) Program

2. Passing a pilot proficiency check/practical test for a pilot certificate or rating

3. Completing an Instrument Proficiency Check

 

A) 1, 2, and 3 are all correct

B) 1 and 2 are correct

C) None are correct, passing a flight review is an absolute requirement to retain PIC privileges

2.       Assuming no aircraft is in distress, what is the proper order of right-of-way for the following aircraft?

1. Glider

2. Balloon

3. Helicopter

4. Airship

 

A) 2, 1, 4, 3

B) 4, 2, 1, 3

C) 2, 4, 1, 3

3.       Which statement is correct with respect to minimum safe altitudes (assume that you are not taking off or approaching to land)?

A)    Over a congested area of a city, town or settlement or over any open air assembly of persons, the minimum altitude is 1000 feet over the highest obstacle within 3000 feet of the aircraft

B)     At any location, at an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface or to the occupants of the aircraft

C)     Over other than congested areas, at an altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas.  In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure

4.       On engine start of an aircraft with a manifold pressure gauge, you find that the gauge is inoperative.  Which statement is true?

A)    You may fly the aircraft, as long as you placard the gauge as “inoperative” and make an entry in the maintenance records

B)     You may fly the aircraft, as long as you placard the gauge as “inoperative”, make an entry in the maintenance records and follow the manufacturer’s recommended tachometer settings, which can be found in the Approved Airplane Flight Manual

C)     You may not fly the aircraft

5.       You have just landed on Runway 24 at ISP and are approaching Runway 33L.  You are at a safe speed to make a turn off of the runway.  Prior to landing, the controller advised you, “minimum time on the runway, 737 landing 2 miles behind you.”  In absence of further instruction from the tower controller, what action should you take?

A)    Turn off onto Runway 33L to minimize your time on the runway

B)     Turn off onto Taxiway B

C)     Speed up to high speed taxi and continue to Taxiway W, so as to immediately increase the spacing between your aircraft and the landing 737

6.       What airspace exists at 900 feet above Brookhaven Airport (HWV)?

A)    Class C

B)     Class G

C)     Class E

7.       You are landing at Montauk Airport at night and note that the runway lights are not on.  On what frequency should you activate the pilot-controlled lighting?

A)    122.7

B)     121.7

C)     124.85

8.       You are on a VFR flight from ISP to Block Island (BID).  What would be an appropriate altitude to maintain?

A)    6500

B)     7500

C)     7000

9.       On the above trip, you wish to use the “Block Island Reporting Service” offered by Flight Service as you cross the water.  What is the proper way to contact them?

A)    Call New York Radio on 122.6 and listen over 122.6

B)     Call New York Radio on 122.6 and listen over 113.6 (Hampton VOR)

C)     Call Boston Flight Watch on 122.0 and listen over 122.0

10.   You plan to leave Block Island to return Island to ISP at 10 P.M.  According to the GACE Procedures Manual, which of the following is correct?

A) You must be instrument-rated

B) You need not be instrument-rated as long as the weather at Block Island and along the route is better than 5000-foot ceiling and 5 miles visibility

C) You need not be instrument-rated as long as you utilize the “Block Island Reporting Service” offered by Flight Service and cross the water at an altitude of at least 6500 feet

11.   In planning your flight to Block Island, what weather products would be appropriate to determine forecast weather at the times of your arrival at and departure from Block Island?

A) The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast for Groton (GON)

B) The Area Forecast for the Rhode Island area in conjunction with inflight aviation weather advisories

C) A Weather Depiction Chart

For Questions 12 and 13, refer to the following METAR report for Block Island, and assume that you receive it over the radio as you are enroute:

KBID 141635Z 16011KT 10SM CLR 22/16 A3019 RMK AO1

12.   What is the airport elevation? ____________

What is the pressure altitude? ____________

What is the density altitude? _____________

13. What would be the appropriate runway to select for landing?_________

Assuming use of your selected runway and recalling the fact that weather observations given over the radio include magnetic wind direction, what is the crosswind component?_____________________________

14. As aircraft weight decreases, design maneuvering speed:

A) Increases

B) Decreases

C) Stays the same

15. You are planning a cross-country VFR flight to Manassas Regional Airport (KHEF) in Virginia.  Which of the following statements are true?

1. The airport is within the Washington DC Metropolitan Area Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)

2. In order to fly within the DC ADIZ, you must file and activate an ADIZ Flight Plan, be in contact with ATC at all times, and be on an assigned transponder code

3. As long as you are on a VFR Flight Plan, you do not need to file any specific ADIZ Flight Plan or be in contact with ATC; however, you must advise FSS if your ETA to destination changes by 10 minutes or more

4. Prior to flying in the DC ADIZ, you must complete the FAA course, “Navigating the DC ADIZ, TFRs, and Special Use Airspace” and carry the completion card with you

 

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 1, 3, and 4

C) 1 and 2

Match the following:

16. _____V_NE                                 a. Maximum flap extended speed

17. _____V_NO                                b. Design maneuvering speed

18. _____V_FE                                 c. Never exceed speed

19. _____ V_A                                 d. Maximum landing gear extended speed

20. _____ V_S0                                e. Stall speed in landing configuration

21. _____ V_D                                 f. Maximum structural cruising speed

22. _____ V_LO                                g. Design diving speed

23.  You are approaching an airport with an operating control tower for landing practice.  As you enter the downwind leg, the controller advises that you are “clear for the option.”  What are you authorized to do at the completion of the approach?

            1. Make a touch and go landing

            2. Make a full-stop landing

            3. Perform a low approach/go-around

            4. Make a stop and go landing

 

            A) 1 and 2 only

            B) 1, 2 and 3

            C) 1, 3 and 4

            D) All 4 options are authorized

24. Which statement is incorrect in reference to wake turbulence?

A) Aircraft that are heavy, in “clean” configuration and slow generate the strongest wake turbulence vortices

B) Helicopters produce wake turbulence from their main rotors only in forward flight, not when hovering

C) If you are taking off behind a large aircraft, one way to avoid wake turbulence is to avoid flying directly behind and below the aircraft by adjusting your heading upwind if there is a crosswind present.

Note: Questions 25-30 are required for instrument rated pilots only

25. You are planning an IFR flight from ISP to Norwood, MA (OWD).  After consulting the Airport/Facility directory “Tower Enroute Control” section, you decide to file the following route in your flight plan:

      ISP HTO V308 ORW V16 WOONS

      For the portion of your routing along airways, what is the highest Minimum Enroute Altitude?

            A) 2000 feet

            B) 2500 feet

            C) 3000 feet

26. As you approach OWD, you receive the following METAR:

KOWD 151553Z 35010G21KT 2 1/2SM RA BR BKN005 OVC021 15/13 A2984 RMK AO2 RAE19B45 PRESRR SLP102 P0003 T01500133

In addition, during your preflight briefing, you received the following NOTAM:

OWD 07/001 OWD ILS FM CANTON DCMSND WEF 0707041518

Assume that your aircraft is equipped with functioning dual NAV/COM radios and a marker beacon receiver, that all ground-based navigational aids and lighting systems are operational and that satellite geometry allows for GPS receivers to fully utilize WAAS capability (i.e. “LPV” tolerances).  Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) If you choose to fly the localizer 35 approach, the minimum descent altitude is 500 feet MSL

B) If you choose to fly the RNAV (GPS) 35 approach and your aircraft is equipped with a WAAS-capable IFR-certified GPS with a current database, the decision height is 344 feet MSL

C) If you choose to fly the RNAV (GPS) 35 approach and your aircraft is equipped with a non-WAAS-capable IFR-certified GPS with a current database, minimum descent altitude is 540 feet MSL

27. Which of the following are permitted substitutions using an IFR-certified GPS in lieu of and ADF or DME receiver?

            1. Flying a DME arc.

            2. Determining the aircraft position over a DME fix.

            3. Holding over an NDB/compass locator

4. Flying an NDB approach that does not have an “overlay” in the GPS database

 

A) All are permitted substitutions

B) 1, 2, and 3

C) 1 and 2

28. You elect to fly the Localizer 35 approach into Norwood.  Upon arrival at the missed approach point, you do not have the runway environment in sight and advise the tower controller that you are on a missed approach.  He instructs you to fly the published missed approach procedure and to contact Boston Approach Control.   What is the proper entry into the holding pattern at MILIS?

A) Direct entry

B) Teardrop entry

C) Parallel entry 

29. You are departing from the Flying W Airport in Lumberton, NJ (N14) for an IFR flight to ISP.  What would be the best way to obtain your IFR clearance prior to departing?

A) Utilize the “GCO” frequency of 121.725, by clicking the microphone 4 times to connect to ATC or 6 times to connect to FSS

B) Utilize the “GCO” frequency of 121.725 as you would any other two-way radio facility

C) Contact McGuire Approach on 124.15

30. For airplanes, what are the fuel requirements for IFR flights (assume that the weather at the destination requires and alternate?  The aircraft must carry enough fuel to:

A) Fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, during the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes

B) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

C) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed